Re: Evolutionary purpose of female orgasm
Bryant (mycol1@unm.edu)
20 Oct 1995 12:19:58 -0600
In article <60.14083.3724.0N1F9B01@canrem.com>,
J. Moore <j#d#.moore@canrem.com> wrote:
>
>My> J. Moore <j#d#.moore@canrem.com> wrote:
>
>Bryant, you said something that was incorrect and I corrected it.
>Then you got mad and got personal.
Please. I've remained civil (as usual). Let's try to keep things above
board here, and figure out just where our disagreement originates. I've
asked a few times for the references you are utilizing. Let's get all
the data and cites on the table.
>Baker and Bellis did not say,
>as *you did*, that:
>>My> the female "upsucks" the pool of sperm in the upper vagina
>>My> during female uterine muscle contractions during her orgasm.
>
>Baker and Bellis *did say*, as *I did*:
>
>JM>But of course actual measurements, as opposed to idle speculation,
>JM>demonstrate that uterine contractions during orgasm are explusive
>JM>rather than providing suction.
Baker and Bellis 1993:
"Orgasms that climaxed at any time between 1 min before the male
ejaculated up to 45 min after led to a high level of sperm retention.
Lack of climax or a climax more than 1 min before the male ejaculated led
to a low level of sperm retention."
This would seem to contradict your implication that Baker and Bellis
claim that orgasm (or the muscular contractions associated with orgasm in
women) expells semen. I would appreciate your providing the relevant
passage in which they argue otherwise. Or, for once, provide some
other references which support your stance.
If the nature of our argument is that you believe *uterine* (as opposed to
vaginal) muscular contractions are uninvolved in upsuck, but you accept that
female orgasm indeed functions to retain sperm, you could do well by
clarifying that point.
>Jim Moore (j#d#.moore@canrem.com)
Bryant
|