re no examples for Hicks & E7S7KEC

Mon, 24 Oct 1994 19:53:20 +1300

I don't know if I can ask this without seeming an apologist for European
colonization, exploitation, racism etc, but wasn't that a trick question?
At what level does melanin-deficiency begin? Where would various groups
who moved out of Asia into Europe prior to 1400, posited by
E7S7KEC@TOE.TOWSON.EDU as the start of global invasion, be classified if we
use a melanin dichotomy instead of a melanin gradation? Yet if we allow
any gradations, how do we know when we have People of Colour vs People of
Colour instead of Melanin Deficient dominating People of Colour? I find
this especially confusing for Asia, but might be equally confused in
Polynesia and Melanesia if I thought about it hard enough.

Then, of course, there is the whole problem of pinning it on skin colour,
vs something else, say, for example culture. I know this has been
canvassed in a variety of ways, but trying to map the unidirectional
domination into cultural instead of racial terms seems to make the whole
thing even more confusing. Even worse than trying to figure out how the
voters knew which presidential candidate was taller before the days of mass