Re: Indo-European Studies
Gerold Firl (geroldf@sdd.hp.com)
6 Jul 1995 13:42:22 -0700
In article <3tgnbk$ub0@nntpd.lkg.dec.com> verma@awecim.enet.dec.com (Virendra Verma) writes:
>In article <3tfd89INNs62@hpsdlmc1.sdd.hp.com>, geroldf@sdd.hp.com (Gerold Firl) writes...
>>The vedas and upanishads appear to very explicitly
>>demonstrate that aryans did invade india around, what, 1500bc?
> Can you please give the references from the Vedas where they
> demonstrate that so called aryans invaded India?
Surely you are aware that the vedas are written in sanskrit? And that
sanskrit is an IE language? If aryans (i.e., indo-europeans) did not
physically move into india ("invade"), then where did the language come
from? Where the customs? The religion? In pre-television days it was
difficult to transmit culture over long distances without the people moving
along with it. The vedas were written by the descendants of the barbarian
IE invaders who entered india through the passes northwest of the indus
valley, and who travelled from kashmir down the ganges valley. If you have
an alternative explanation, lets hear it.
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=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=---- Gerold Firl @ ..hplabs!hp-sdd!geroldf
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