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Re: Indo-European Studies
paul manansala (polmansl@ix.netcom.com)
6 Jul 1995 16:11:52 GMT
In <3tgnbk$ub0@nntpd.lkg.dec.com> verma@awecim.enet.dec.com (Virendra
Verma) writes:
>
>
>In article <3tfd89INNs62@hpsdlmc1.sdd.hp.com>, geroldf@sdd.hp.com
(Gerold Firl) writes...
>>The vedas and upanishads appear to very explicitly
>>demonstrate that aryans did invade india around, what, 1500bc?
>
> Can you please give the references from the Vedas where they
> demonstrate that so called aryans invaded India?
>
> BTW, according to the Vedas, aryan is not even a race. It is
referred
> to someone who aspires for spiritual progress. In the Gita
itself,
> Krishna refers to Arjuna as aryaputra but never to the Kauravas,
> although both are descendent of the same race.
>
> No doubt, a little knowledge is always dangerous. A case in point
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> the Indo-European studies.
>
>regards,
>
>-- Virendra Verma
All though it does not belong to the same time period, Buddhists
used the terms arya, ariya, arhant, etc., to refer to people who
had attained liberation into nirvana (but not necessarily
enlightenment).
Paul Kekai Manansala
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