Re: Indo-European Studies
Virendra Verma (verma@awecim.enet.dec.com)
7 JUL 95 08:35:01
In article <3thhreINN6l@hpsdlmc1.sdd.hp.com>, geroldf@sdd.hp.com (Gerold Firl) writes...
>
>Surely you are aware that the vedas are written in sanskrit? And that
>sanskrit is an IE language?
This logic is based on false premise. Sanskrit is much older than
any languages of Europe. In fact, Europe is only 6000 years old
and Sanskrit is much older than that. Rig veda is supposed to be
composed around 6500 BC!!!!
Some European languages may have been derived from Sanskrit, but
the origin of Sanskrit lies in India.
>If aryans (i.e., indo-europeans) did not
>physically move into india ("invade"), then where did the language come
>from?
This argument is stupid. Where do you find Sanskrit so nicely
preserved other than India? The west discovered Sanskrit
only in the 18th century.
>Where the customs? The religion?
Don't tell me that European culture is Vedic.
> In pre-television days it was
>difficult to transmit culture over long distances without the people moving
>along with it.
So Europe is the center of all civilizations? The tone sounds similar
to what Max Muller and Hitler were propagating earlier in this
century.
>The vedas were written by the descendants of the barbarian
>IE invaders who entered india through the passes northwest of the indus
>valley, and who travelled from kashmir down the ganges valley. If you have
>an alternative explanation, lets hear it.
Get a life! I don't have patience to reply.
regards,
-- Virendra Verma
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