Aquatic ape theory

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AAT says that hominids became bipedal as a result of wading or swimming
behavior. But what if the hominid was already at least partially bipedal
when it became aquatic?

I'm not an anthropologist, or anything close, but I am convinced that
there are certain human traits (hairlessness and the nose, principly)
which are very poorly explained (if at all) by other theories. What if
the "biggie" adaptations occurred in non-aquatic environments, but many
of the minor ones originated in the water?

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Bryce Harrington

bryce@netcom.com

u00j7828@hsc.hac.com






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