Re: There are ruling classes
wvanhou237@aol.com
11 Jan 1997 20:09:42 GMT
In article <itsd1-0901972244160001@ip-pdx15-31.teleport.com>,
itsd1@teleport.com (Thomas L. Billings) writes:
>
>In article <hegeman-ya023580000901971131480001@newshost.uwo.ca>,
>hegeman@wchat.on.ca (Toby Cockcroft) wrote:
>
>> In article <Love@40891>, varange@crl.com,fenriz66@ix.netcom.com wrote:
>>
>> >The ancestral Germanic tribes overthrew their unwanted
>> >kings whenever he didn't resign gracefully; he usually did.
>> >Since "Anglo-American" is Germanic, what would be the problem
>> >with this?
>>
>> FYI Anglo-American is not Germanic. The Germans have had little
influence
>> on the political traditions and structure of the United States
>>
One may assume that the Angles, Saxons, Germanic tribes, and even the
Vikings and Normans were culturaly similar. I will go so far as to say
geneticly
linked. They all had a custom of "disciplining" leaders who ruled not
wisely but too much. The Magna Carta comes to mind. The dynastic wars in
England are another
example.
The part of the US from which all our basic system of governance comes was
overwhelmingly English. Even if one allows a Celtic influence by the Irish
and
Scots it still comes out "Germanic". If we may believe what we read about
the
Irish tribes and the Scots' clans , they were just as "Democratic" as the
Germans.
To put it another way: Why are we legaly considered " inocent untill
proved guilty"
rather than "guilty untill proved inocent". ?
W F VAN HOUTEN
Older. But wiser ?
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