no answers to Hicks

Sun, 23 Oct 1994 21:41:48 -0500

I've been reading the responses to Hicks' question of 'To give a historical
example where People of Color exploited/oppressed people who were melanin
deficient. So far, no one has tackled this question or avoided the question
by giving example of exploitation of People of Color vs. People of Color.
This was not the question. I am sure if one spent enough time doing research
an example could be found. However, this would be nothing in comparision to
the legacy of violence that Europeans and people of European descent have
wrought against People of Color.
What is most interesting is when this legacy began. To my knowledge, the
global invasion began during the mid to late 1400's. At this time an
pattern began to develop in the way the powers that were in Europe dealt
with those who did not carry out God's will. First it was the Jews and
healers who were called 'witches'. Then as expansion took place People
of Color became the next targets. Ok, ok you know the story. My point
being that Racism developed as a way to justify genocide and slavery.
Racism is not inherent and will not always prevail. (Optimism here).
The fact is that it does exist and we have to deal with it. And a good
starting point is dealing with history.
So why is no one responding to Hicks question? Maybe because a point
was made and no one wants to admit to being wrong. I think the people
who tried to respond to Hicks' question by diffusing it or going off
on a tangent are showing their true colors (or lack of).
Finally, I cannot answer Hicks' question because I cannot think of an
example. Point taken.