Re: Indo-European Studies
Randall J. Burns (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Thu, 13 Jul 1995 19:48:18 GMT
In article <email@example.com>,
Virendra Verma <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote:
>In article <email@example.com>, firstname.lastname@example.org (R. Wallace) writes...
>>: In any case, the migration down from the passes of the hindu kush was
>>: *long* before anything was written down. Within a few generations, such
>>: memories get very vague.
>>Is there perhaps a parallel in the Germanic Nibelungenlied?
> 1. How could a few so called uncivilized Aryans eliminate or displace
> an earlier advanced Indus civilization unless they were supported
> by weapons and force from their ancestral land or the then native
> population of India was savage?
Well, advanced weapons technology!=civilization. For example, when the English
decimated the French nobility(immortalized in Shakepeare's play), it was
arguable that by many criteria the French were more "civilized".
> 3. Casteism is unique to Vedic people. If they came from outside,
> why casteism does not exist in the other western cultures.
Well, Norway, to this day has a well defined class system:
> 4. Sanskrit is the most structured language. Why other Indo-European
> languages lack consistent structure.
What about Lithuanian?