Re: Amerind an offensive term (was: Early Amerind assimilation
Stephen Barnard (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Thu, 15 Aug 1996 20:08:55 -0800
Matt Silberstein wrote:
> Stephen Barnard <email@example.com> wrote:
> >-Mayo,H.H. wrote:
> >> According to the most recent Federal survey, that term is "Indian"
> >> by a large majority.
> >> Larry Mayo
> >Does that survey include the 930 million people who live in India, some
> >of whom I'm sure are reading this newsgroup?
> The vast majority who don't read or speak English. I have a question
> though. Do they call themselves Indians? And did they before the
> English/French came?
English is very common in India. I believe that it's the "official"
language, in the sense that official government business is conducted in
English. I wouldn't be at all surpised if there were more English
speakers in India than in England.
I'm pretty sure that they (Indian Indians, that is) do call themselves
Indians, at least when they're speaking English.