Re: Is English a creole? (was: Indo-European Studies)

Anthea F Gupta (
31 Jul 1995 02:15:46 GMT

Glynis Baguley ( wrote:
: In article <> (James Walker) writes:
: >
: > This analysis completely ignores the language-contact situation prior to
: > the Norman invasion: the viking invasions and the establishment of the
: > Danelaw (viking-occupied England) in the 9th century. This, more than
: > the French occupation, is likely to have led to the levelling of grammatical
: > paradigms, because the "Danes" and the Anglo-Saxons in these areas
: > would have been in intimate and prolonged contact and would have
: > been intermarrying, a situation that did not hold with the later French-
: > speaking nobility.

: Is this known for certain? Was there really no intermarriage between
: the Normans and the English? Why not? This seems somewhat implausible.

It's a question of numbers. The Normans were few in number & of
generally higher social class. It's what happens among the toiling
masses that matters....

Anthea Fraser GUPTA

English Language & Literature
National University of Singapore
Kent Ridge e-mail:
Singapore 0511 telephone: (65) 772 3933