Re: Origin and function of language

Richard Foy (
Fri, 28 Jun 1996 14:08:54 GMT

In article <>,
Mark Leney <> wrote:
>On Mon, 24 Jun 1996, Paul Crowley wrote:
>> I can see no problem with this. One just has to look at the immense
>> cultural differences today between, say, Americans, French, Italian,
>> German and British, and how those differences are embodied in
>> language. It's also easy to see how in total war those differences
>> could (and, to some extent, did in WW1 and WW2) lead to success or
>> failure. I don't think any scientist would suggest that these
>So, (apologies for wandering off the subject here) you are saying that
>the results of WW1 and WW2 were in part due to linguistic differences
>between the warring nations. I think that is about the same as saying
>that Yiddish caused the Final Solution.

I don't think so. I think it would be the equivalent of saying that
the German language was a factor in the Final Solution, which I don't
see as impossible. For example:

If the German language is a language that is rich in authoritarian
convepts etc it could increase the probabilty of such things as the
Holocaust. Also if the English language were a language of love of
country as contrasted wtih duty to country it could lead to an edge
in war along with of course a great productive capacity.

"Do you know why Moses wandered in the wilderness for fourty years."(pause)
He was a man and men don't ask directions." --Nun in the play Nunsense

URL Womens Quotations