Solomon Yusim (syusim@BCM.TMC.EDU)
Fri, 28 Apr 1995 17:23:54 -0500
I'm a physician and psychotherapist and not an anthropologist, so please
forgive these my questions if they sound too naive or ignorant.
One of my most esteemed professors, a psychologist, was fond of saying that
intra-cultural variability is commonly ignored, but, in fact, is far greater
than the inter-cultural one. He never offered, however, any references to
support his second claim.
So, what is known about intra-cultural variability? Can it be ascertained
and how? Can these two be legitimately compared? Have they been?
I'd be grateful for any help with this. I'm supposed to speak about
unwarranted cultural generalizations at the forthcoming meeting of the
Society of Teachers of Family Medicine, and would like to clarify
(quantify?) this issue for my own benefit first.
Solomon Yusim | Internet: syusim@BCM.TMC.EDU
Department of Community Medicine | Phone: (713) 785-3310
Baylor College of Medicine | SnailMail: P.O. Box 711349
Houston, Texas, USA | Houston, TX 77271-1349